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Ron Stelter Local time: 10:05 Member (2003) German to English
Feb 21, 2003
[ This Message was edited by: ronjon on 2003-03-20 14:40]
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edlih_be Local time: 17:05 Flemish to English + ...
not 100% sure but....
Feb 21, 2003
if the terms within a purchase order are not agreed beforehand, then i don\'t consider it to be binding. if i receive the PO after i have started the job, and find something objectionable, then i will let the client know.
if no agreement has been made, i apply the European Late Payments Directive, which allows you to set the payment terms at 30 days.
[ This Message was edited by:on2003-02-21 17:57]
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I don\'t think P/Os sent after the fact would hold water in a court of law. In most countries, any written messages (or oral agreement, if a witness or recording is present) would be valid as a purchase contract, if the messages show both parties agreed and the buyer gives the final go-ahead. I assume that with services it is the same as with merchandise, in international trading an order and a confirmation (of the order) are a valid contract. If you have many such clients, you can prevent that ... See more
I don\'t think P/Os sent after the fact would hold water in a court of law. In most countries, any written messages (or oral agreement, if a witness or recording is present) would be valid as a purchase contract, if the messages show both parties agreed and the buyer gives the final go-ahead. I assume that with services it is the same as with merchandise, in international trading an order and a confirmation (of the order) are a valid contract. If you have many such clients, you can prevent that by issuing a P/I (Proforma Invoice) stating service content with your conditions and have them sign it back. This is binding and they should be in breach of contract in many countries, if they do not observe conditions they accepted. ▲ Collapse
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